“Propensity to diseaseâ€ is a very broad term in the health law realm. Should â€œpropensity to diseaseâ€ be limited to those instances in which there exists a clear physical marker (chemical or biological) of an identified health problem potentially on the horizon, or is it also acceptable (legally justifiable) to include other indicators less concrete such as â€œfamily historyâ€ where there may be statistical evidence but no known physical marker identified at present? What significance should this label/category have?
Secondly, is it fundamentally fair to deny an individual a verdict of â€œgood healthâ€ (legally speaking) specifically and ONLY because of a genetic predisposition to a particular disease? What impact on the individual and medical systems would this denial have?
Please include at least two sources.